jmw
06-16-2010, 04:35 AM
When using Pearson's correlation one can take the coefficient (R) and square it (R2) to get the coefficient of determination, which is interpretated as the fraction of variance shared between the two variables.
My question is: is there any meaning or value in doing the corresponding thing with the Spearman rank correlation coefficient (Rs) when using Spearman rank correlation?
Can Rs2 be interpretated in any meaningful way?
My question is: is there any meaning or value in doing the corresponding thing with the Spearman rank correlation coefficient (Rs) when using Spearman rank correlation?
Can Rs2 be interpretated in any meaningful way?