Decrement
07-21-2010, 05:49 AM
I have a question that i have wondered ever since my undergraduate days. Is it possible to have a unimodal distribution such that the mode is in-between the mean and the median? Ie. Median<Mode<Mean, or Mean<Mode<Median.
I have experimented with various asymmetrical distributions such as the Chi-Square, Lognormal, Pareto, Weibull etc and I’ve found using different parameter values that this is not possible.
Does anyone have any idea how this could be proved generally, or even provide some sort of explanation based on some relation to the cumulate distributive function/maxima of the distribution?
I'm hoping someone here can come up with something, most of my tutors said they’d "try" to find an answer but obviously had no clue.
I have experimented with various asymmetrical distributions such as the Chi-Square, Lognormal, Pareto, Weibull etc and I’ve found using different parameter values that this is not possible.
Does anyone have any idea how this could be proved generally, or even provide some sort of explanation based on some relation to the cumulate distributive function/maxima of the distribution?
I'm hoping someone here can come up with something, most of my tutors said they’d "try" to find an answer but obviously had no clue.